Question ID 4718 - 2019-05-31 00:19:02
Question:
Salam I have read this on Sayyed Siatanis website: If he masturbates without the intention of ejaculating and he does not normally ejaculate, knowing that discharge is probable and it actually happens —he has to do qadha without the penalty. However, if such a person was confident that no discharge would take place and it actually happens — no qadha is required. In all these cases, there is no difference between a man and a woman. I would like to ask if you masturbate without the intention of ejaculating and some liquid comes out but you are not able to tell if it is precum or not. Is my fast then valid? The liquid did not gush out but it leaked and was quite thick. I did not feel relaxation after.
Answer:
Fast is valid.
Question ID 4725 - 2019-06-03 14:22:53
Question:
Salamaalikum, If hairoil is put on hairs and ghusl e janabat is performed, while ghusl shampoo is applied still oils doesnt comes out from hairs is the ghusl valid?
Answer:
Wa Alaykum Assalam wr wb
If the remaining oil is very little that does not form a layer on the hair, then Ghusl is valid.
Wassalam
Question ID 4724 - 2019-06-03 08:21:01
Question:
i was in nikah but had no sexual relation with my husband, no marriage ceremony took place now i want khula from my husband but he is not willing to give khula, i even dont want my mehr and want to forgive it to him and does not want to live with him, how can i have khula according to shariah.
Answer:
Khula is a type of Talaq in which you convince the husband to agree to it against any material you give him even by forgiving Mahr or less or more. You need to convince him either directly or through others to agree on Khula.
No Khula can be enforced on him. If you have evidence that the marriage will be dangerous on your religion or safety, then you can refer to the Hakim Shariah to go through a procedure of enforced Talaq.
Wassalam
Mohammad Al-Musawi
Question ID 4720 - 2019-05-31 03:25:58
Question:
Assalamu alaikum. I have a question regarding the Islamic aqid (Nikah). Does the Islamic aqid (Nikah) need to be signed by the bride and groom in order for it to be valid, if it has already been conducted by a recognised sayed (imam) and witnessed by many people? Thank you.
Answer:
Wa Alaykum Assalam wr wb=20
In Islam, the Aqd of Nikah is valid when both bride and groom agree on =
it and it is recited. Signature is not a condition at all.
Wassalam=20
Mohammad Al-Musawi=20
>=20
>=20
Question ID 4731 - 2019-06-08 03:46:28
Question:
Salam Alaikum. I wanted to ask whether it is permissible to do the course of fashion desgining? For girls ?
Answer:
Wa Alaykum Assalam wr wb
Yes it is permissible to study fashion designing for females as far as it
does not lead to designing unlawful dress for wearing in public.
Wassalam
Mohammad Al-Musawi
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